Unique Top-selling PCCET Exams - New 2023 Palo Alto Networks Pratice Exam
Certified Cybersecurity Associate Dumps PCCET Exam for Full Questions - Exam Study Guide
Here is the importance of taking the Palo Alto Networks PCCET Certification Exam:
In the current era of the ever-evolving threat landscape, it is crucial to have a basic understanding of the foundational knowledge of the cybersecurity field. In this context, the PCCET certification exam serves as a starting point for candidates who are looking to enter the cybersecurity field or who want to validate their existing cybersecurity knowledge. The certification is based on the NIST/NICE framework. PCCET Dumps is a comprehensive and accurate tool that allows students to test their skills and gain certification from one of the leading cybersecurity vendors. This framework is designed to align with the latest cybersecurity curriculum and help ensure that students acquire the required skills.
Furthermore, this certification aims to validate candidates' fundamental cybersecurity, network security, cloud security, and SOC security knowledge through an online examination. Upon completion of the exam, candidates will receive a certificate that verifies their understanding of the core concepts, principles, and practices of the cybersecurity field. In addition to the certificate, all candidates will also receive a score based on their performance on the test.
Intro to the Palo Alto Networks PCCET Certification Exam:
PCCET stands for “Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician”. PCCET exam is authorized by the Palo Alto Networks education service team and designed for individuals who are looking to enter the IT security field or are seeking a job in a technology company that uses cybersecurity technologies. The test is based on foundational knowledge in the cybersecurity field which encompasses network security, SOC security, cloud security, and other advanced technology trends. Candidates must be able to demonstrate the ability to understand how cyber threats manifest themselves, where they originate, and what the right defenses are to stop them. PCCET Dumps is an excellent tool for those who want to test their skills and get certification from one of the world's leading cybersecurity vendors. This is the first and only cybersecurity entry-level certification offered by Palo Alto Networks Education Services.
Furthermore, this certification aims to validate candidates' fundamental cybersecurity, network security, cloud security, and SOC security knowledge through an online examination. Upon completion of the exam, candidates will receive a certificate that verifies their understanding of the core concepts, principles, and practices of the cybersecurity field. In addition to the certificate, all candidates will also receive a score based on their performance on the test.
NEW QUESTION 78
Match the IoT connectivity description with the technology.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION 79
Which core component is used to implement a Zero Trust architecture?
- A. Content Identification
- B. VPN Concentrator
- C. Web Application Zone
- D. Segmentation Platform
Answer: D
Explanation:
"Remember that a trust zone is not intended to be a "pocket of trust" where systems (and therefore threats) within the zone can communicate freely and directly with each other. For a full Zero Trust implementation, the network would be configured to ensure that all communications traffic, including traffic between devices in the same zone, is intermediated by the corresponding Zero Trust Segmentation Platform."
NEW QUESTION 80
Which type of LAN technology is being displayed in the diagram?
- A. Mesh Topology
- B. Star Topology
- C. Spine Leaf Topology
- D. Bus Topology
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 81
Which IoT connectivity technology is provided by satellites?
- A. L-band
- B. 2G/2.5G
- C. 4G/LTE
- D. VLF
Answer: A
Explanation:
2G/2.5G: 2G connectivity remains a prevalent and viable IoT connectivity option due to the low cost of 2G modules, relatively long battery life, and large installed base of
2G sensors and M2M applications.
* 3G: IoT devices with 3G modules use either Wideband Code Division Multiple Access (W-CDMA) or Evolved High Speed Packet Access (HSPA+ and Advanced HSPA+) to achieve data transfer rates of 384Kbps to 168Mbps.
* 4G/Long-Term Evolution (LTE): 4G/LTE networks enable real-time IoT use cases, such as autonomous vehicles, with 4G LTE Advanced Pro delivering speeds in excess of
3Gbps and less than 2 milliseconds of latency.
* 5G: 5G cellular technology provides significant enhancements compared to 4G/LTE networks and is backed by ultra-low latency, massive connectivity and scalability for IoT devices, more efficient use of the licensed spectrum, and network slicing for application traffic prioritization.
NEW QUESTION 82
During the OSI layer 3 step of the encapsulation process, what is the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) called when the IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses?
- A. Frame
- B. Packet
- C. Data
- D. Segment
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 83
On which security principle does virtualization have positive effects?
- A. non-repudiation
- B. integrity
- C. confidentiality
- D. availability
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 84
Based on how much is managed by the vendor, where can CaaS be situated in the spread of cloud computing services?
- A. between FaaS and Serverless
- B. between PaaS and FaaS
- C. between On-Prem and IaaS
- D. between IaaS and PaaS
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 85
In the attached network diagram, which device is the switch?
- A. D
- B. B
- C. A
- D. C
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 86
In the network diagram below, which device is the router?
- A. D
- B. A
- C. B
- D. C
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 87
How does DevSecOps improve the Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline?
- A. DevSecOps ensures the pipeline has horizontal intersections for application code deployment
- B. DevSecOps improves pipeline security by assigning the security team as the lead team for continuous deployment
- C. DevSecOps does security checking after the application code has been processed through the CI/CD pipeline
- D. DevSecOps unites the Security team with the Development and Operations teams to integrate security into the CI/CD pipeline
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 88
Which IPsec feature allows device traffic to go directly to the Internet?
- A. Diffie-Hellman groups
- B. d.Authentication Header (AH)
- C. IKE Security Association
- D. Split tunneling
Answer: D
Explanation:
"Or split tunneling can be configured to allow internet traffic from the device to go directly to the internet, while other specific types of traffic route through the IPsec tunnel, for acceptable protection with much less performance degradation."
NEW QUESTION 89
How does DevSecOps improve the Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline?
- A. DevSecOps ensures the pipeline has horizontal intersections for application code deployment
- B. DevSecOps improves pipeline security by assigning the security team as the lead team for continuous deployment
- C. DevSecOps does security checking after the application code has been processed through the CI/CD pipeline
- D. DevSecOps unites the Security team with the Development and Operations teams to integrate security into the CI/CD pipeline
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
DevSecOps takes the concept behind DevOps that developers and IT teams should work together closely, instead of separately, throughout software delivery and extends it to include security and integrate automated checks into the full CI/CD pipeline. The integration of the CI/CD pipeline takes care of the problem of security seeming like an outside force and instead allows developers to maintain their usual speed without compromising data security
NEW QUESTION 90
During the OSI layer 3 step of the encapsulation process, what is the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) called when the IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses?
- A. Frame
- B. Packet
- C. Data
- D. Segment
Answer: B
Explanation:
The IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses to the TCP segment (which now is called an IP packet) and notifies the server operating system that it has an outgoing message ready to be sent across the network.
NEW QUESTION 91
Given the graphic, match each stage of the cyber-attack lifecycle to its description.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION 92
A user is given access to a service that gives them access to cloud-hosted physical and virtual servers, storage, and networking.
Which NIST cloud service model is this?
- A. IaaS
- B. SaaS
- C. CaaS
- D. PaaS
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 93
Which of the following is an AWS serverless service?
- A. Kappa
- B. Beta
- C. Lambda
- D. Delta
Answer: C
Explanation:
Examples of serverless environments include Amazon Lambda and Azure Functions. Many PaaS offerings, such as Pivotal Cloud Foundry, also are effectively serverless even if they have not historically been marketed as such. Although serverless may appear to lack the container-specific, cloud native attribute, containers are extensively used in the underlying implementations, even if those implementations are not exposed to end users directly.
NEW QUESTION 94
Which network firewall operates up to Layer 4 (Transport layer) of the OSI model and maintains information about the communication sessions which have been established between hosts on trusted and untrusted networks?
- A. Stateful
- B. Static packet-filter
- C. Stateless
- D. Group policy
Answer: A
Explanation:
Stateful packet inspection firewalls Second-generation stateful packet inspection (also known as dynamic packet filtering) firewalls have the following characteristics:
* They operate up to Layer 4 (Transport layer) of the OSI model and maintain state information about the communication sessions that have been established between hosts on the trusted and untrusted networks.
* They inspect individual packet headers to determine source and destination IP address, protocol (TCP, UDP, and ICMP), and port number (during session establishment only) to determine whether the session should be allowed, blocked, or dropped based on configured firewall rules.
* After a permitted connection is established between two hosts, the firewall creates and deletes firewall rules for individual connections as needed, thus effectively creating a tunnel that allows traffic to flow between the two hosts without further inspection of individual packets during the session.
* This type of firewall is very fast, but it is port-based and it is highly dependent on the trustworthiness of the two hosts because individual packets aren't inspected after the connection is established.
NEW QUESTION 95
Which network device breaks networks into separate broadcast domains?
- A. Router
- B. Layer 2 switch
- C. Hub
- D. Wireless access point
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A layer 2 switch will break up collision domains but not broadcast domains. To break up broadcast domains you need a Layer 3 switch with vlan capabilities.
NEW QUESTION 96
Which two network resources does a directory service database contain? (Choose two.)
- A. Users
- B. /etc/shadow files
- C. Services
- D. Terminal shell types on endpoints
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Explanation
A directory service is a database that contains information about users, resources, and services in a network.
NEW QUESTION 97
What type of DNS record maps an IPV6 address to a domain or subdomain to another hostname?
- A. AAAA
- B. MX
- C. NS
- D. SOA
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 98
During the OSI layer 3 step of the encapsulation process, what is the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) called when the IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses?
- A. Frame
- B. Packet
- C. Data
- D. Segment
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses to the TCP segment (which now is called an IP packet) and notifies the server operating system that it has an outgoing message ready to be sent across the network.
NEW QUESTION 99
Which activities do local organization security policies cover for a SaaS application?
- A. how the application can transit the Internet
- B. how the application processes the data
- C. how the data is backed up in one or more locations
- D. how the application can be used
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 100
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