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ISACA CRISC (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control) is a globally recognized certification for professionals in the field of information systems risk management. The CRISC certification validates an individual's knowledge and expertise in managing information systems risks and implementing information systems controls. The CRISC certification is offered by the Information Systems Audit and Control Association (ISACA), an international professional association focused on information technology governance.
NEW QUESTION # 85
Which among the following acts as a trigger for risk response process?
- A. Risk level increase above risk tolerance
- B. Risk level increases above risk appetite
- C. Risk level equates the risk tolerance
- D. Risk level equates risk appetite
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation:
The risk response process is triggered when a risk exceeds the enterprise's risk tolerance level. The acceptable variation relative to the achievement of an objective is termed as risk tolerance. In other words, risk tolerance is the acceptable deviation from the level set by the risk appetite and business objectives.
Risk tolerance is defined at the enterprise level by the board and clearly communicated to all stakeholders. A process should be in place to review and approve any exceptions to such standards.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C: Risk appetite level is not relevant in triggering of risk response process. Risk appetite is the amount of risk a company or other entity is willing to accept in pursuit of its mission. This is the responsibility of the board to decide risk appetite of an enterprise. When considering the risk appetite levels for the enterprise, the following two major factors should be taken into account:
* The enterprise's objective capacity to absorb loss, e.g., financial loss, reputation damage, etc.
* The culture towards risk taking-cautious or aggressive. In other words, the amount of loss the enterprise wants to accept in pursue of its objective fulfillment.
D: Risk response process is triggered when the risk level increases the risk tolerance level of the enterprise, and not when it just equates the risk tolerance level.
NEW QUESTION # 86
Which of the following BEST protects an organization against breaches when using a software as a service (SaaS) application?
- A. Data privacy impact assessment (DPIA)
- B. Control self-assessment (CSA)
- C. Data loss prevention (DLP) tools
- D. Security information and event management (SIEM) solutions
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 87
Which of the following control is used to ensure that users have the rights and permissions they need to perform their jobs, and no more?
- A. Audit and Accountability control
- B. Access control
- C. Identification and Authentication control
- D. System and Communications protection control
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation
Explanation:
Access control helps an organization implement effective access control. They ensure that users have the rights and permissions they need to perform their jobs, and no more. It includes principles such as least privilege and separation of duties.
Incorrect Answers:
A: System and Communications protection control is a large group of controls that cover many aspects of protecting systems and communication channels. Denial of service protection and boundary protection controls are included. Transmission integrity and confidentiality controls are also included.
B: Audit and Accountability control helps an organization implement an effective audit program. It provides details on how to determine what to audit. It provides details on how to protect the audit logs. It also includes information on using audit logs for non-repudiation.
D: Identification and Authentication control cover different practices to identify and authenticate users. Each user should be uniquely identified. In other words, each user has one account. This account is only used by one user. Similarly, device identifiers uniquely identify devices on the network.
NEW QUESTION # 88
The MAIN reason for prioritizing IT risk responses is to enable an organization to:
- A. determine the risk appetite.
- B. determine the budget.
- C. optimize resource utilization.
- D. define key performance indicators (KPIs).
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which of the following represents lack of adequate controls?
- A. Asset
- B. is incorrect. Threat is the potential cause of unwanted incident.
- C. Explanation:
Vulnerability is a weakness or lack of safeguard that can be exploited by a threat, thus causing
harm to the information systems or networks. It can exist in hardware, operating systems,
firmware, applications, and configuration files. Hence lack of adequate controls represents
vulnerability and would ultimately cause threat to the enterprise. - D. Impact
- E. Vulnerability
- F. Threat
- G. is incorrect. Impact is the measure of the financial loss that the threat event may have.
Answer: E
Explanation:
is incorrect. Assets are economic resources that are tangible or intangible, and is
capable of being owned or controlled to produce value.
NEW QUESTION # 90
If one says that the particular control or monitoring tool is sustainable, then it refers to what ability?
- A. The ability to ensure the control remains in place when it fails
- B. The ability to protect itself from exploitation or attack
- C. The ability to be applied in same manner throughout the organization
- D. The ability to adapt as new elements are added to the environment
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Sustainability of the controls or monitoring tools refers to its ability to function as expected over time or when changes are made to the environment.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Sustainability ensures that controls changes with the conditions, so as not to fail in any circumstances.
Hence this in not a valid answer.
C: This in not a valid answer.
D: This is not a valid definition for defining sustainability of a tool.
NEW QUESTION # 91
Which one of the following is the only output for the qualitative risk analysis process?
- A. Risk register updates
- B. Project management plan
- C. Enterprise environmental factors
- D. Organizational process assets
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Risk register update is the only output of the choices presented for the qualitative risk analysis process.
The four inputs for the qualitative risk analysis process are the risk register, risk management plan, project scope statement, and organizational process assets. The output of perform qualitative risk analysis process is Risk Register Updates. Risk register is updated with the information from perform qualitative risk analysis and the updated risk register is included in the project documents. Updates include the following important elements:
Relative ranking or priority list of project risks
Risks grouped by categories
Causes of risk or project areas requiring particular attention
List of risks requiring response in the near-term
List of risks for additional analysis and response
Watchlist of low priority risks
Trends in qualitative risk analysis results
Incorrect Answers:
A, C, D: These are not the valid outputs for the qualitative risk analysis process.
NEW QUESTION # 92
Improvements in the design and implementation of a control will MOST likely result in an update to:
- A. risk appetite
- B. risk tolerance
- C. inherent risk
- D. residual risk
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 93
The MAIN purpose of having a documented risk profile is to:
- A. comply with external and internal requirements.
- B. prioritize investment projects.
- C. enable well-informed decision making.
- D. keep the risk register up-to-date.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 94
What are the requirements of effectively communicating risk analysis results to the relevant stakeholders? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
- A. Provide decision makers with an understanding of worst-case and most probable scenarios
- B. The results should be reported in terms and formats that are useful to support business decisions
- C. Communicate the risk-return context clearly
- D. Explanation:
The result of risk analysis process is being communicated to relevant stakeholders. The steps that are involved in communication are: The results should be reported in terms and formats that are useful to support business decisions. Coordinate additional risk analysis activity as required by decision makers, like report rejection and scope adjustment. Communicate the risk-return context clearly, which include probabilities of loss and/or gain, ranges, and confidence levels (if possible) that enable management to balance risk-return. Identify the negative impacts of events that drive response decisions as well as positive impacts of events that represent opportunities which should channel back into the strategy and objective setting process. Provide decision makerswith an understanding of worst-case and most probable scenarios, due diligence exposures and significant reputation, legal or regulatory considerations. - E. Communicate only the negative risk impacts of events in order to drive response decisions
Answer: A,B,C,D
Explanation:
is incorrect. Both the negative and positive risk impacts are being communicated to relevant stakeholders. Identify the negative impacts of events that drive response decisions as well as positive impacts of events that represent opportunities which should channel back into the strategy and objective setting process.
NEW QUESTION # 95
An organization has operations in a location that regularly experiences severe weather events. Which of the following would BEST help to mitigate the risk to operations?
- A. Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA) for an alternate location.
- B. Develop a business continuity plan (BCP).
- C. Prepare a cost-benefit analysis to evaluate relocation.
- D. Prepare a disaster recovery plan (DRP).
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 96
Which of the following is an IT business owner's BEST course of action following an unexpected increase in emergency changes?
- A. Reconfiguring the IT infrastructure
- B. Conducting a root cause analysis
- C. Validating the adequacy of current processes
- D. Evaluating the impact to control objectives
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 97
Your project has several risks that may cause serious financial impact if they occur. You have studied the risk events and made some potential risk responses for the risk events but management wants you to do more. They'd like you to create some type of a chart that identified the risk probability and impact with a financial amount for each risk event. What is the likely outcome of creating this type of chart?
- A. Quantitative analysis
- B. Contingency reserve
- C. Risk response plan
- D. Risk response
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This chart is a probability-impact matrix in a quantitative analysis process. The probability and financial impact of each risk is learned through research, testing, and subject matter experts. The probability of the event is multiplied by the financial impact to create a risk event value for each risk. The sum of the risk event values will lead to the contingency reserve for the project.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The risk response plan is based on the risk responses, not the risk probability-impact matrix.
C: The risk responses are needed but this chart doesn't help the project manager to create them.
D: This chart is created as part of quantitative analysis.
NEW QUESTION # 98
You are a project manager for your organization and you're working with four of your key stakeholders. One of the stakeholders is confused as to why you're not discussing the current problem in the project during the risk identification meeting. Which one of the following statements best addresses when a project risk actually happens?
- A. Project risks are always in the future.
- B. Risks can happen at any time in the project.
- C. Project risks are uncertain as to when they will happen.
- D. Risk triggers are warning signs of when the risks will happen.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation:
According to the PMBOK, a project risk is always in the future. If the risk event has already happened, then it is an issue, not a risk.
Incorrect Answers:
A: You can identify risks before they occur and not after their occurrence.
B: Risks can only happen in the future.
D: Triggers are warning signs and conditions of risk events, but this answer isn't the best choice for this question.
NEW QUESTION # 99
Which of the following operational risks ensures that the provision of a quality product is not overshadowed by the production costs of that product?
- A. Profitability operational risks
- B. Project activity risks
- C. Contract and product liability risks
- D. Information security risks
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Profitability operational risks focus on the financial risks which encompass providing a quality product that is cost-effective in production. It ensures that the provision of a quality product is not overshadowed by the production costs of that product.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Information security means protecting information and information systems from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification, perusal, inspection, recording or destruction. Information security risks are the risks that are associated with the protection of these information and information systems.
B: These risks do not ensure that the provision of a quality product is not overshadowed by the production costs of that product.
C: Project activity risks are not associated with provision of a quality product or the production costs of that product.
NEW QUESTION # 100
The PRIMARY objective of testing the effectiveness of a new control before implementation is to:
- A. comply with the organization's policy.
- B. ensure that risk is mitigated by the control.
- C. measure efficiency of the control process.
- D. confirm control alignment with business objectives.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 101
Which of the following BEST measures the efficiency of an incident response process?
- A. Average gap between actual and agreed response times
- B. Number of incidents lacking responses
- C. Average time between changes and updating of escalation matrix
- D. Number of incidents escalated to management
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 102
Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to present an annual risk management update to the board''
- A. A summary of risk response plans with validation results
- B. A dashboard summarizing key risk indicators (KRIs)
- C. A report with control environment assessment results
- D. A summary of IT risk scenarios with business cases
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 103
Senior management has asked the risk practitioner for the overall residual risk level for a process that contains numerous risk scenarios. Which of the following should be provided?
- A. The sum of residual risk levels for each scenario
- B. The loss expectancy for aggregated risk scenarios
- C. The average of anticipated residual risk levels
- D. The highest loss expectancy among the risk scenarios
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 104
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?
- A. Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data
- B. Including trend analysis of risk metrics
- C. Ensuring relevance to organizational goals
- D. Using an aggregated view of organizational risk
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 105
Following a significant change to a business process, a risk practitioner believes the associated risk has been reduced. The risk practitioner should advise the risk owner to FIRST
- A. reallocate risk response resources.
- B. update the risk register
- C. conduct a risk analysis.
- D. review the key risk indicators.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 106
You work as a project manager for TechSoft Inc. You are working with the project stakeholders on the qualitative risk analysis process in youproject. You have used all the tools to the qualitative risk analysis process in your project. Which of the following techniques is NOT used asa tool in qualitative risk analysis process?
- A. Risk Categorization
- B. Risk Urgency Assessment
- C. Explanation:
You will not need the Risk Reassessment technique to perform qualitative risk analysis. It is one of
the techniques used to monitor and control risks. - D. Risk Data Quality Assessment
- E. Risk Reassessment
Answer: E
Explanation:
A, and C are incorrect.
The tools and techniques for Qualitative Risk Analysis process are as follows :
Risk Probability and Impact Assessment: Risk probability assessment investigates the chances of
a particular risk to occur.
Risk Impact Assessment investigates the possible effects on the project objectives such as cost,
quality, schedule, or performance, including positive opportunities and negative threats.
Probability and Impact Matrix: Estimation of risk's consequence and priority for awareness is
conducted by using a look-up table or the probability and impact matrix. This matrix specifies the
mixture of probability and impact that directs to rating the risks as low, moderate, or high priority.
Risk Data Quality Assessment: Investigation of quality of risk data is a technique to calculate the
degree to which the data about risks are useful for risk management.
Risk Categorization: Risks to the projects can be categorized by sources of risk, the area of
project affected and other valuable types to decide the areas of the project most exposed to the
effects of uncertainty.
Risk Urgency Assessment: Risks that requires near-term responses are considered more urgent
to address.
Expert Judgment: It is required to categorize the probability and impact of each risk to determine
its location in the matrix.
NEW QUESTION # 107
Which of the following BEST indicates the effectiveness of anti-malware software?
- A. Number of staff hours lost due to malware attacks
- B. Number of successful attacks by malicious software
- C. Number of patches made to anti-malware software
- D. Number of downtime hours in business critical servers
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 108
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Professionals who hold the CRISC certification are highly sought-after by employers as they can help organizations to manage and mitigate risks related to information systems. They are also able to help organizations to comply with various regulations and standards related to IT risk management. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification is also beneficial for professionals who are seeking to advance their careers in the IT industry and for those who are looking to transition into IT risk management.
ISACA CRISC certification is recognized globally and is highly respected in the industry. It demonstrates a candidate's commitment to excellence and their ability to manage risks associated with information systems effectively. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification is also widely recognized by employers, who view it as proof of a candidate's expertise in risk management and their ability to safeguard company data.
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