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NEW QUESTION # 148
During a threat modeling exercise using the Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, and Elevation of Privilege (STRIDE) framework, it was identified that a web server allocates a socket and forks each time it receives a request from a user without limiting the number of connections or requests.
Which of the following security objectives is MOST likely absent in the web server?
- A. Authorization
- B. Availability
- C. Integrity
- D. Authenticity
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 149
Which of the following is the BEST option for a security director to use in order to mitigate the risk of inappropriate use of credentials by individuals with administrative rights?
- A. Have administrators accept a Non-Disclosure Agreement.
- B. Perform extensive background checks on administrators.
- C. Have administrators sign appropriate access agreements.
- D. Define the Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) for administrators.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 150
Which security concept states that a subject (user, application, or asset) be given only the access needed to complete a task?
- A. Principle of least privilege
- B. Need to know
- C. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
- D. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 151
A security professional is accessing an organization-issued laptop using biometrics to remotely log into a network resource. Which type of authentication method is described in this scenario?
- A. Something one does
- B. Something one is
- C. Something one knows
- D. Something one has
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 152
Following the go-live of a new financial software, an organization allowed the Information Technology (IT) officer to maintain all rights and access permissions to help the organization staff should they have challenges in their day-to-day work. What is the BEST way to categorize the situation?
- A. Least access principle
- B. Excessive privileges
- C. Training access
- D. Need to know access
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 153
In a make-to-stock (MTS) environment, the master production schedule (MPS) Is usually a schedule of which of the following types of items?
- A. Component/subassembly items
- B. Finished goods items
- C. Phantom items
- D. Raw material items
Answer: B
Explanation:
In a make-to-stock (MTS) environment, the master production schedule (MPS) is usually a schedule of finished goods items that are ready to be sold to customers. Phantom items, component/subassembly items, and raw material items are not typically scheduled in the MPS, but rather in the material requirements planning (MRP) system, which is driven by the MPS. Reference:
CPIM 8.0 Exam Content Manual Preview, page 10, section 4.1.1
CPIM Part 1 Study Guide, page 66, section 4.1.1
CPIM Part 1 Learning System, Module 4, Lesson 1, Topic 1: Master Production Schedule
NEW QUESTION # 154
An organization is looking to integrate security concepts into the code development process early in development to detect issues before the software is launched. Which advantage does the organization gain from using Static Application Security Testing (SAST) techniques versus dynamic application security testing techniques?
- A. Executes code to detect issues
- B. Allows for earlier vulnerability detection
- C. Simulates attacker patterns
- D. Allows tailored techniques
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 155
In preparing for a facility location decision, proximity to suppliers would be classified as which kind of criteria?
- A. Future flexibility factors
- B. Cost factors
- C. Service level requirements
- D. Access to transportation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Proximity to suppliers would be classified as a cost factor in preparing for a facility location decision. Cost factors are the expenses associated with operating a facility in a specific location, such as labor, materials, utilities, taxes, and transportation. Proximity to suppliers can affect the cost of inbound transportation, inventory holding, and quality control. Choosing a location that is close to suppliers can reduce these costs and improve the efficiency and reliability of the supply chain. References:
Managing Supply Chain Operations, Chapter 2: Global Supply Chain Strategy, Section 2.3: Facility Location CPIM Exam Content Manual, Module 1: Supply Chains and Strategy, Section 1.4: Facility Location, Subsection 1.4.1: Facility Location Concepts
NEW QUESTION # 156
A hot Disaster Recovery (DR) data center is the victim of a data breach. The hackers are able to access and copy 10GB of clear text confidential information. Which of the following could have decreased the amount of exposure from this data breach?
- A. Password hashing
- B. Encryption in transit
- C. Encryption at rest
- D. Layer 7 filtering
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 157
Which of the following items does the master scheduler have the authority to change in the master scheduling process?
- A. Engineering change effectivity date
- B. Product mix
- C. Customer order quantities
- D. Aggregate volume
Answer: B
Explanation:
The master scheduler has the authority to change the product mix in the master scheduling process. The product mix is the combination and proportion of different products or product families that the company offers to its customers. The master scheduler can adjust the product mix based on the customer demand, the production capacity, the inventory levels, and the strategic objectives of the company. The master scheduler can also use the product mix to balance the demand and supply, to optimize the resource utilization, and to maximize the profitability. The other options are not correct, as they are items that the master scheduler does not have the authority to change in the master scheduling process, but rather inputs or constraints that the master scheduler has to follow or consider:
* Aggregate volume is the total quantity of products or product families that the company plans to produce and deliver in a given period. Aggregate volume is determined by the sales and operations planning (S&OP) process, which involves the senior management and the functional managers of the company. The master scheduler has to align the master production schedule (MPS) with the aggregate volume, and cannot change it without the approval of the S&OP team.
* Engineering change effectivity date is the date when a change in the design or specification of a product or a component becomes effective. Engineering change effectivity date is determined by the engineering department, which is responsible for the product development and innovation. The master scheduler has to incorporate the engineering change effectivity date into the MPS, and cannot change it without the approval of the engineering department.
* Customer order quantities are the amounts of products or product families that the customers order from the company. Customer order quantities are determined by the market demand and the customer preferences. The master scheduler has to satisfy the customer order quantities as much as possible, and cannot change them without the approval of the customers or the sales and marketing department. References:
* [CPIM Part 2 - Section A - Topic 1 - Sales and Operations Planning]
* Master Production Schedule (MPS)
* Product Mix
* Aggregate Planning
* Engineering Change Management
* Customer Order Management
NEW QUESTION # 158
Broadcast traffic is causing network performance degradation of sensitive equipment.
Which of the following methods is used to prevent the broadcast traffic from impacting availability?
- A. Place the sensitive equipment behind a firewall to prevent the broadcast traffic from impacting the equipment.
- B. Use Network Access Control (NAC) to prevent the broadcast traffic from broadcasting.
- C. Move the sensitive equipment to a different switch port to prevent the broadcast traffic from impacting the equipment.
- D. Implement Quality of Service (QoS) on network switches to throttle the sensitive equipment traffic.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 159
An organization is restructuring its network architecture in which system administrators from the corporate office need to be able to connect to the branch office to perform various system maintenance activities. What network architecture would be MOST secure?
- A. Jump-server connected to a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)
- B. Bastion host over a Wide Area Network (WAN)
- C. Bastion host with Virtual Private Network (VPN) termination point
- D. Jump-server on a Local Area Network (LAN)
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 160
While doing a penetration test, auditors found an old credential hash for a privileged user. To prevent a privileged user's hash from being cached, what is the MOST appropriate policy to mandate?
- A. Place each privileged user in a separate Kerberos policy.
- B. Enable security options for each privileged user.
- C. Add privileged users to the protected users group.
- D. Add privileged user to the domain admin group.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 161
Which of the following describes the 3 MAIN roles of the identity-delegation model?
- A. Delegator, application server, and service provider
- B. Application server, proxy server, and delegate
- C. Delegator, delegate, and service provider
- D. Application server, web server, and delegate
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 162
Which of the following combines multiple software programming tools into one package?
- A. Program language compilers
- B. Integrated development environments
- C. Software development kit
- D. Dynamic Link Libraries (DLL)
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 163
Which of the following roles is the BEST choice for classifying sensitive data?
- A. Information system owner
- B. Information system security officer
- C. Information system security manager
- D. Information owner
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 164
Which of the following planning modules considers the shortest-range planning goals?
- A. Input/output analysis
- B. Capacity requirementsplanning(CRP)
- C. Rough-cut capacity planning (RCCP)
- D. Resource planning
Answer: B
Explanation:
Capacity requirements planning (CRP) is a planning module that considers the shortest-range planning goals.
CRP is a process of determining the amount of available capacity and comparing it with the required capacity to execute the planned orders in the master production schedule (MPS) and the material requirements planning (MRP). CRP is usually done at the work center level and for a time horizon of a few weeks or months. CRP helps to identify and resolve capacity issues, such as overloads or underloads, and to adjust the production plan accordingly. CRP is the most detailed and accurate method of capacity planning, as it considers the actual routings, lead times, and lot sizes of the orders. The other options are not correct, as they either consider longer-range planning goals or less detailed capacity information:
*Input/output analysis is a technique of monitoring the input (planned orders) and output (actual production) of a work center or a product family, and comparing them with the available capacity. Input/output analysis is usually done at the aggregate level and for a time horizon of a few months or quarters. Input/output analysis helps to measure the performance of the production plan and to identify and correct deviations from the plan.
*Resource planning is a process of determining the long-range capacity requirements for labor, equipment, facilities, and other resources, based on the sales and operations plan (S&OP). Resource planning is usually done at the aggregate level and for a time horizon of a few years. Resource planning helps to support the strategic decisions and investments related to the resource capacity.
*Rough-cut capacity planning (RCCP) is a process of verifying the feasibility of the master production schedule (MPS) in terms of the available capacity of critical resources, such as key machines or labor skills.
RCCP is usually done at the product family level and for a time horizon of a few months or quarters. RCCP helps to validate the MPS and to identify and resolve potential capacity bottlenecks or gaps. References:
*[CPIM Part 2 - Section A - Topic 2 - Capacity Planning]
*Capacity Requirements Planning (CRP)
*Input/Output Control
*Resource Planning
*Rough Cut Capacity Planning (RCCP)
NEW QUESTION # 165
Based on the values reported in the table below, what is the inventory turnover?
- A. 1.73
- B. 0.58
- C. 0.50
- D. 2.60
Answer: A
Explanation:
Inventory turnover is a ratio that measures how many times a company sells and replaces its inventory in a given period. It is calculated by dividing the cost of goods sold (COGS) by the average inventory value. A higher inventory turnover indicates a more efficient use of inventory, while a lower turnover implies excess inventory or poor sales1.
Based on the values reported in the table, we can calculate the inventory turnover as follows:
Inventory Turnover = COGS / Average Inventory Value = $260,000 / $150,000 = 1.73 Therefore, the correct answer is C.
References := 1 Inventory Turnover - How to Calculate Inventory Turns2
NEW QUESTION # 166
Under which of the following conditions is excess capacity most likely a good substitute for safety stock?
- A. The cost of excess capacity is less than the cost of an additional unit of safety stock in the same period.
- B. The cost to maintain one unit in inventory for a year is less than the direct labor cost.
- C. Lead time for the product is longer than customers are willing to wait.
- D. The service level with safety stock is more than the service level with excess capacity.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Excess capacity is the amount of capacity that is available beyond the normal or expected demand. Safety stock is the inventory that is held to protect against uncertainties in demand, supply, or lead time. Excess capacity can be a good substitute for safety stock when the cost of excess capacity is less than the cost of an additional unit of safety stock in the same period. This means that the opportunity cost of having idle resources is lower than the carrying cost of holding extra inventory. In this case, excess capacity can be used to produce more units in response to demand fluctuations, rather than relying on safety stock to meet customer orders. Reference:
* [CPIM Part 1 Learning System, Module 4: Inventory Management, Section 4.2: Inventory Management Policies and Objectives]
* [CPIM Part 2 Learning System, Module 1: Supply Chain Strategy, Section 1.3: Capacity Management]
NEW QUESTION # 167
Long lead-time items with stable demand would best be supported by a supply chain:
- A. linked through an enterprise resources planning (ERP) system.
- B. using a pull system.
- C. designed to be responsive.
- D. positioning inventory close to the consumer.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Long lead-time items with stable demand are best supported by a supply chain that positions inventory close to the consumer. This reduces the risk of stockouts and improves customer service levels. It also allows the supply chain to buffer against demand variability and supply disruptions. Positioning inventory close to the consumer is a form of postponement strategy, where the final assembly or customization of products is delayed until the customer order is received12. Reference: EXAM CONTENT MANUAL PREVIEW, page 9, section 3.1.2. [Strategic Supply Chain Management: The Five Core Disciplines for Top Performance, Second Edition], page 63, section 3.2.
NEW QUESTION # 168
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